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StayPuftMarshadowMan

I believe the answer would be h. For every value (x,y) of the function f, h has the inverse (y,x).

The correct answer is the second one.

In fact, the graphs of a function and its inverse are symmetrical with respect to the line [tex] y = x [/tex].

Such a symmetry has the effect of mapping point [tex] (x,y) [/tex] to point [tex] (y,x) [/tex]